Palm gestures

Palm Gestures

• Submissive Palm Position - The palm facing up is used as a submissive, non-threatening gesture, reminiscent of the pleading gesture of a street beggar. The person being asked to move the box will not feel that the request is given with pressure and, in a normal superior/subordinate situation, will not feel threatened by the request.
• Dominant Palm Position - When the palm is turned to face downwards, you will have immediate authority. The person to whom you have directed the request feels that he has been given an order to remove the box and may feel antagonistic towards you, depending on your relationship with him. For example, if the person to whom you gave the request was a co-worker of equal status, he could reject your palm-down request and would be more likely to carry out your wish if you had used the palm-up position. If the person to whom you give the request is your subordinate, the palm-down gesture is acceptable, as you have the authority to use it.
• Aggressive Palm Position - The palm is closed into a fist and the pointed finger becomes a symbolic club with which the speaker figuratively beats his listener into submission. The pointed finger is one of the most irritating gestures that a person can use while speaking, particularly when it beats time to the speaker's words. If you are an habitual finger-pointer, try practising the palm-up and palm-down positions and you will find that you create a more relaxed attitude and have a more positive effect on other people.

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Shaking Hands

• Glove Handshake - The glove handshake is sometimes called the politician's handshake. The initiator tries to give the receiver the impression that he is trustworthy and honest, but when this technique is used on a person he has just met, it has the reverse effect. The receiver feels suspicious and cautious about the initiator's intentions. The glove should only be used with people to whom the initiator is well-known.

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Double Handed Handshakes

• The intention of the double-handed handshake is to show sincerity, trust or depth of feeling towards the receiver. Two significant elements should be noticed. Firstly, the left hand is used to communicate the extra feeling that the initiator wishes to transmit and its extent is related to the distance that the initiator's left hand is moved up the receiver's right arm.
• Elbow Grasp - The elbow grasp, transmits more feeling than the wrist hold, and the shoulder hold.
• In general, the wrist hold and the elbow grasp are acceptable only between close friends or relatives and in these cases, the initiator's left hand penetrates only the receiver's intimate zone.

• The shoulder hold and the upper arm grip enter the receiver's close intimate zone and may involve actual body contact. They should be used only between people who experience a close emotional bond at the time of the handshake.

Body Language

Shoulder Shrug Gesture

• The shoulder shrug is also a good example of a universal gesture that is used to show that a person does not know or understand what you are talking about. It is a multiple gesture that has three main parts: exposed palms, hunched shoulders and raised brow.

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The Ring or 'OK' Gesture

• The 'OK' meaning is common to all English-speaking countries and it means "All correct".

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The Thumb-Up Gesture

• In Britain, Australia and New Zealand the thumb-up gesture has three meanings, it is commonly used by hitch-hikers who are thumbing a lift, it is an OK signal, and when the thumb is jerked sharply upwards it becomes an insult signal, meaning 'up yours' or 'sit on this'. In some countries, such as Greece, its main meaning is 'get stuffed'.

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Congruence (state of agreement)

• We often see a high ranking politician standing behind a lectern with his arms tightly folded across his chest (defensive) and chin down (critical or hostile), while telling his audience how receptive and open he is to the ideas of young people.

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How To Tell Lies Successfully

Steam Boilers and Engines

1.The object of producing draught in a boiler is

to provide an adequate supply of air for the fuel combustion to exhaust the gases of combustion from the combustion chamber to discharge the gases of combustion to the atmosphere through the chimney all of the above

2.In a glass tube type water indicator for a boiler, one end of the tube is connected to water space and the other end is connected to

water space also chimney steam space superheater

3.In water tube boilers

water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames and hot gases the flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are surrounded by water forced circulation takes place none of these

4.Which of the following statement is wrong ?

Locomotive boiler is a water tube boiler. Water tube boilers are internally fired. La-mont boiler is a low pressure water tube boiler. all of the above

5.When the speed of the crankshaft is between 100 r.p.m. and 250 r.p.m., the engine said to be a

slow speed engine medium speed steam engine high speed steam engine none of these

Magnetism and Electromagnetism

1.When the speed at which a conductor is moved through a magnetic field is increased, the induced voltage

increases decreases remains constant reaches zero

2.The induced voltage across a coil with 250 turns that is located in a magnetic field that is changing at a rate of 8 Wb/s is

1,000 V 2,000 V 31.25 V 3,125 V

3.For a given wirewound core, an increase in current through the coil

reverses the flux lines decreases the flux density increases the flux density causes no change in flux density

4.If the cross-sectional area of a magnetic field increases, but the flux remains the same, the flux density

increases decreases remains the same doubles

5.When the current through the coil of an electromagnet reverses, the

direction of the magnetic field reverses direction of the magnetic field remains unchanged magnetic field expands magnetic field collapses

Transformers

1.What kVA rating is required for a transformer that must handle a maximum load current of 8 A with a secondary voltage of 2 kV?

4 kVA 0.25 kVA 16 kVA 8 kVA

2. The turns ratio required to match an 80 source to a 320 ohm load is

80 20 4 2

3.When the turns ratio of a transformer is 20 and the primary ac voltage is 12 V, the secondary voltage is

12V 120V 240V 2400 V

4.If a transformer has 50 turns in the primary winding and 10 turns in the secondary winding, what is the reflective resistance if the secondary load resistance is 250 ?

250 25 6250 62500

5.A certain transformer has 400 turns in the primary winding and 2,000 turns in the secondary winding. The turns ratio is

0.2 0.4 5 25

Microwave Communication

1. The velocity factor of a transmission line depends on

temperature skin effect relative permittivity of dielectric none of the above

2.A loss less line of characteristic impedance Z0 is terminated in pure reactance of -jZ0 value. VSWR is

10 2 1 infinity

3.In a klystron amplifier the input cavity is called

buncher catcher Pierce gun collector

4.In a circular waveguide the dominant mode is

TE01 TE11 TE20 TE21

5. The reflection coefficient on a line is 0.2 ∠45°. The SWR is

0.8 1.1 1.2 1.5

Radio Receivers

1.The noise generated by a resistor depends upon

its resistance value its operating temperature both its resistance value and operating temperature none of the above

2.In a superheterodyne receiver

the IF stage has better selectivity than RF stage the RF stage has better selectivity than IF stage the RF stage has same selectivity than IF stage none of the above

3.The function of an AM detector circuit is to

rectify the input signal discard the carrier provide audio signal all of the above

4.Which of the following should be used in order to prevent overloading or the last IF amplifier in a receiver?

Variable selectivity Variable sensitivity Double conversion Squelch

5.Most popular IF for receivers tuning to 540 to 1650 kHz is

433 kHz 455 kHz 545 kHz 555 kHz

Satellite Communication

1.The first geostationary satellite launched in 1965 was called

ANIK EARLY BIRD (Intelsat-I) WESTAR MOLNIYA

2.Rotation of a geosynchronous satellite means its

drift from stationary position wobbling three-axis stabilization three-dimensional stabilization

3.The present total cost per watt of power generation in geosynchronous orbit is nearly Rs.

20 50 100 5

4.Noise temperature of Sun is more than __________ °K.

1000 5000 100000 500

5.A 20 m antenna gives a certain uplink gain at frequencies of 4/6 GHz. For getting same gain in the 20/30 GHz band, antenna size required is metre.

100 4 1 10

Steel Structure Design

1.The effective length of a compression member of length L held in position and restrained in direction at one end and effectively restrained in direction but not held in position at the other end, is

L 0.67 L 0.85 L 2 L

2.The ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain within elastic limit, is known as

modulus of elasticity shear modulus of elasticity bulk modulus of elasticity tangent modulus of elasticity

3.For determination of allowable stress in axial compression, Indian Standard Institution has adopted

Euler's formula Rankine formula Engesser formula Secant formula

4.The method of design of steel framework for greatest rigidity and economy in weight, is known as

simply design semi-rigid design fully rigid design none of these.

5. If the pitch is 6 cm and rivet value is 4 tonnes, the number of rivets required for a riveted connection carrying an eccentric load of 15 tonnes at a distance of 30 cm from the centre line, is

6 8 10 12

Railways

1.Mr. W. Simms, the consulting Engineer to the Government of India recommended the gauge for Indian railways

1.435 m as adopted in England 1.800 m as per Indian conditions 1.676 m as a compromise gauge 1.000 m as a standard gauge

2.If absolute levels of rails at the consecutive axles A, B, and C separated by 1.8 metres are 100.505 m, 100.530 m, and 100.525 m respectively, the unevenness of rails, is

0.065 m 0.055 m 0.045 m 0.035 m

3.A CST-9 sleeper consists of

two inverted triangular pots on either side of rail seat a central plate with a projected key and box on the top of plate a single two way key provided on the gauge side to hold the rail to sleeper all the above

4.Charles Vignoles invented the flat footed rails in

1814 1836 1846 1873

5.To design a cross-over between parallel tracks, the required components are :

two switch, points, two acute angle crossings and two check rails two switch points, two acute angle crossings and four check rails two switch points, two acute angle crossings and six check rails none of these.

Language Processors

1.Which of the following functions is/ are performed by the loader?

Allocate space in memory for the programs and resolve symbolic references between object decks Physically place the machine instructions and data into memory Adjust all address dependent locations, such as address constants, to correspond to the allocated space All of the above

2. Convert the 11014B machine language instructions into assembly language, assuming that they were not generated by pseudo-ops

ASRA LOADA h#OD4E, i STOREA h#014B, d ADDA h#01FE, i

3.The advantage(s) of incorporating the macro processor into pass 1 is/ are

many functions do not have to be implemented twice Functions are combined and it is not necessary to create intermediate files as output from the macro processor and input to the assembler more flexibility is available to the programmer in which he/she may use all the features of the assembler in conjunction with macros All of the above

4.In which addressing mode, the effective address of the operand is generated by adding a constant value to the contents of register?

absolute mode indirect mode immediate mode index mode

5.A self-relocating program is one which

cannot be made to execute in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of its coding or translation consists of a program and relevant information for its relocation can itself perform the relocation of its address-sensitive portions All of the above

Electronic Principles

1. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of free electrons

Equals the number of holes Is less than the number of holes Is greater than the number of holes Impossible to say

2.A device that converts mechanical into electrical energy is?

solar cell thermocouple chemical cell generator

3.Which one of the following kinds of materials has the lowest permeability?

A diamagnetic material A paramagnetic material A feiTomagnetic material All of the above

4.The total impedance of a parallel RLC circuit:

always increases as the applied frequency increases is equal to the sum of the values of resistance, inductive reactance and capacitive reactance always decreases as the applied frequency increases is maximum at the resonant frequency

5.The rise time of a pulse waveform is the time required for the voltage to rise:

from zero to its rms value from zero to its peak value from 10% of the peak value to 70.7% of the peak value from 10% of the peak value to 90% of the peak value

Management Information Systems

1.Which of the following is(are) true of the EDP auditors?

they should have computer expertise they will be replaced by traditional auditors in the near future two of the above currently, there is a very high demand for them, particularly from firms that use personal computers

2.Controls of data communication deal with

the communication channel the computer terminals All of the above

3.A lockbox service is used for

depositing cash when bank is closed paying bank customer bills automatically storing papers in a bank vault depositing payments to bank customers

4.Critical path of the PERT chart is:

path which takes the longest time to complete the project the shortest path both of the above path which takes the shortest time to complete the project

5. Inventory is also referred to as:

stock warehouse capacity materials materials in hand

Computer Awareness

1.In computing, 1 nibble = ?

4 Bits 4 Bytes 8 Bytes 8 Kilo Bytes

2.Symantec is the maker of which among the following popular antivirus software?

Norton BitDefender Avast McAfee VirusScan

3.In the Windows XP, what does XP stands for?

Extra-Powerful Experience Extended Platform Experience Platform

4.Which among the following service does not belong to Google?

Youtube Blogger Picnik Xbox

5.Which among the following is NOT a web browser?

SpaceTime NeoPlanet Sputnik MeeGo

Computer Awareness

1.News websites deliver customized ‘feeds’ of content to their readers via RSS, which stands for :

Really Simple Syndication Real Social Syndication Registered Subscriber Syndication Really Simple Synchronization

2.Which among the following is the correct order in which popular company Apple released them?

Mac, iPod, iPad, iPhone Mac, iPhone, iPod, iPad Mac, iPod, iPhone, iPad Mac, iPad, ipod, iPhone

3.“Macintosh” an Operating System is a product of ?

Microsoft Apple Intel Google

4.In Binary System, the power of _____ is used .

2 4 6 8

5.Who among the following are the Founders of Social Networking Site: “Twitter” ?

Chris Hughes, Dustin Moskovitz, Eduardo Saverin, Mark Zuckerberg Larry Page, Sergey Brin Biz Stone, Evan Williams, Noah Glass, Jack Dorsey Jawed Karim, Chad Hurley, Steve Chen

Testing Techniques

1. Can you explain boundary value analysis?
   In some projects there are scenarios where we need to do boundary value testing. For instance, let's say for a bank application you can withdraw a maximum of 25000 and a minimum of 100. So in boundary value testing we only test the exact boundaries rather than hitting in the middle. That means we only test above the max and below the max. This covers all scenarios. The following figure shows the boundary value testing for the bank application which we just described. TC1 and TC2 are sufficient to test all conditions for the bank. TC3 and TC4 are just duplicate/redundant test cases which really do not add any value to the testing. So by applying proper boundary value fundamentals we can avoid duplicate test cases, which do not add value to the testing.

   
2. Can you explain equivalence partitioning?
   In equivalence partitioning we identify inputs which are treated by the system in the same way and produce the same results. You can see from the following figure applications TC1 and TC2 give the same results (i.e., TC3 and TC4 both give the same result, Result2). In short, we have two redundant test cases. By applying equivalence partitioning we minimize the redundant test cases.

   

   So apply the test below to see if it forms an equivalence class or not:

   • All the test cases should test the same thing.
   • They should produce the same results.
   • If one test case catches a bug, then the other should also catch it.
   • If one of them does not catch the defect, then the other should not catch it.
3. Can you explain random/monkey testing?
   Random testing is sometimes called monkey testing. In Random testing, data is generated randomly often using a tool. For instance, the following figure shows how randomly-generated data is sent to the system. This data is generated either using a tool or some automated mechanism. With this randomly generated input the system is then tested and results are observed accordingly.

   

   Random testing has the following weakness:

   • They are not realistic.
   • Many of the tests are redundant and unrealistic.
   • You will spend more time analyzing results.
   • You cannot recreate the test if you do not record what data was used for testing.

Six Sigma

1. What is Six Sigma?
   Six Sigma is a statistical measure of variation in a process. We say a process has achieved Six Sigma if the quality is 3.4 DPMO (Defect per Million Opportunities). It's a problem-solving methodology that can be applied to a process to eliminate the root cause of defects and costs associated with it.

   
2. Can you explain the different methodology for the execution and the design process stages in Six Sigma?
   The main focus of Six Sigma is to reduce defects and variations in the processes. DMAIC and DMADV are the models used in most Six Sigma initiatives. 

   

   DMADV is the model for designing processes while DMAIC is used for improving the process. 

   
   

   The DMADV model includes the following five steps:

   • Define: Determine the project goals and the requirements of customers (external and internal).
   • Measure: Assess customer needs and specifications.
   • Analyze: Examine process options to meet customer requirements.
   • Design: Develop the process to meet the customer requirements.
   • Verify: Check the design to ensure that it's meeting customer requirements

   
   

   

   The DMAIC model includes the following five steps:

   • Define the projects, goals, and deliverables to customers (internal and external). Describe and quantify both the defects and the expected improvements.
   • Measure the current performance of the process. Validate data to make sure it is credible and set the baselines.
   • Analyze and determine the root cause(s) of the defects. Narrow the causal factors to the vital few.
   • Improve the process to eliminate defects. Optimize the vital few and their interrelationships.
   • Control the performance of the process. Lock down the gains.
3. Can you explain the fish bone/Ishikawa diagram?
   There are situations where we need to analyze what caused the failure or problem in a project. The fish bone or Ishikawa diagram is one important concept which can help you find the root cause of the problem. Fish bone was conceptualized by Ishikawa, so in honor of its inventor, this concept was named the Ishikawa diagram. Inputs to conduct a fish bone diagram come from discussion and brainstorming with people involved in the project. The following figure shows the structure of the Ishikawa diagram.

   

   The main bone is the problem which we need to address to know what caused the failure. For instance, the following fish bone is constructed to find what caused the project failure. To know this cause we have taken four main bones as inputs: Finance, Process, People, and Tools.

Software Testing Basics

1. Can you explain the PDCA cycle and where testing fits in?
   Software testing is an important part of the software development process. In normal software development there are four important steps, also referred to, in short, as the PDCA (Plan, Do, Check, Act) cycle.

   

   Let's review the four steps in detail.

   1. Plan: Define the goal and the plan for achieving that goal.
   2. Do/Execute: Depending on the plan strategy decided during the plan stage we do execution accordingly in this phase.
   3. Check: Check/Test to ensure that we are moving according to plan and are getting the desired results.
   4. Act: During the check cycle, if any issues are there, then we take appropriate action accordingly and revise our plan again.

   
   

   So developers and other stakeholders of the project do the "planning and building," while testers do the check part of the cycle. Therefore, software testing is done in check part of the PDCA cyle.
2. What is the difference between white box, black box, and gray box testing?
   Black box testing is a testing strategy based solely on requirements and specifications. Black box testing requires no knowledge of internal paths, structures, or implementation of the software being tested.

   
   

   White box testing is a testing strategy based on internal paths, code structures, and implementation of the software being tested. White box testing generally requires detailed programming skills.

   
   

   There is one more type of testing called gray box testing. In this we look into the "box" being tested just long enough to understand how it has been implemented. Then we close up the box and use our knowledge to choose more effective black box tests.

   
   

   

   
   

   The above figure shows how both types of testers view an accounting application during testing. Black box testers view the basic accounting application. While during white box testing the tester knows the internal structure of the application. In most scenarios white box testing is done by developers as they know the internals of the application. In black box testing we check the overall functionality of the application while in white box testing we do code reviews, view the architecture, remove bad code practices, and do component level testing.
3. Can you explain usability testing?
   Usability testing is a testing methodology where the end customer is asked to use the software to see if the product is easy to use, to see the customer's perception and task time. The best way to finalize the customer point of view for usability is by using prototype or mock-up software during the initial stages. By giving the customer the prototype before the development start-up we confirm that we are not missing anything from the user point of view.

   
   

   
4. What are the categories of defects?
   There are three main categories of defects:

   

   1. Wrong: The requirements have been implemented incorrectly. This defect is a variance from the given specification.
   2. Missing: There was a requirement given by the customer and it was not done. This is a variance from the specifications, an indication that a specification was not implemented, or a requirement of the customer was not noted properly.
   3. Extra: A requirement incorporated into the product that was not given by the end customer. This is always a variance from the specification, but may be an attribute desired by the user of the product. However, it is considered a defect because it's a variance from the existing requirements.